7/10
explaining why there were no intervening murders
29 December 2020
Warning: Spoilers
I just want to respond to bkoganbing7's comment that "I would have trouble believing that a man would kill two women a quarter of a century apart and have no others pop up on law enforcement's attention." In-story, those were the only two times that the killer had felt that he *had* to kill someone in order to keep them from revealing his secret (that he was operating a Bernie Madoff-like very-long-running Ponzi scheme). The police weren't able to find any similar murders in the intervening years because there *weren't* any, because the killer hadn't needed to commit any.
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